this post was submitted on 18 Aug 2025
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Question 5 is incorrect,
name@example
is a fully valid email address, even after RFC 2822The spec of RFC 2822 defines an address (3.4.1) as:
domain
is defined (3.4.1) as:dot-atom
is defined (3.2.4) as:1*atext
meaning at least 1 alphanumeric character, followed by*("." 1*atext)
meaning at least 0"." 1*atext
If tomorrow, google decided to use its
google
top-level domain as an email domain, it would be perfectly valid, as could any other company owning top-level domainsGoogle even owns a
gmail
TLD so I wouldn't even be surprised if they decided to use itI didn't understand this one. How do you have a no dot domain? Like you need to distinguish from example.com or example.wtf
Edit: do you mean if you own
.google
you can have youremail@google
address?Yes, the top-level domain is still just a domain. I'm not aware of any public Internet services which are reachable from a TLD directly, and it's strongly discouraged by ICANN, but there isn't any technical limitation preventing e.g. someone at Verisign from setting up
example@com
.