this post was submitted on 18 Aug 2025
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[–] CommanderCloon@lemmy.ml 61 points 4 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) (9 children)

Question 5 is incorrect, name@example is a fully valid email address, even after RFC 2822

The spec of RFC 2822 defines an address (3.4.1) as:

local-part "@" domain

domain is defined (3.4.1) as:

domain = dot-atom / domain-literal / obs-domain

dot-atom is defined (3.2.4) as:

dot-atom = [CFWS] dot-atom-text [CFWS]
dot-atom-text = 1*atext *("." 1*atext)

1*atext meaning at least 1 alphanumeric character, followed by *("." 1*atext) meaning at least 0 "." 1*atext


If tomorrow, google decided to use its google top-level domain as an email domain, it would be perfectly valid, as could any other company owning top-level domains

Google even owns a gmail TLD so I wouldn't even be surprised if they decided to use it

[–] pineapplelover@lemmy.dbzer0.com 3 points 4 days ago* (last edited 4 days ago) (4 children)

I didn't understand this one. How do you have a no dot domain? Like you need to distinguish from example.com or example.wtf

Edit: do you mean if you own .google you can have your email@google address?

[–] mobotsar@sh.itjust.works 2 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) (1 children)

In response to your edit.

Yes, or countries could use their cctld, e.g. email@us or noreply@uk.

Or any tld owner could do the same with theirs, of course.

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