this post was submitted on 03 Dec 2025
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Tell me the Gender of Nutella or Yogurt, then :)
La nutella (she) y el (he) yogurt.
Nutella -- female, Yogurt -- male.
curious: but why? is there a formula or is it a combination of memorization with relations? ie: “i dont remember the gender of a trash can but I know a cooking pot is male and I cook like trash so a trash can is male?”
usually if it ends in "a" it's feminine versus "o" for masculine, but there are exceptions for that too!
interesting. language is interesting.
And easy. For example "futbolista" is "female football player", because it ends in "a", and "futbolista" is "male football player" because... Wait what?
Another easy example is "mar" (sea). It's clearly masculine. Except if you're a poet in love with the sea and you make it female because "no homo" I guess.
OK, the sea is fluid (pun intended), makes sense. What about the computer? "Computadora" is femenine. But it's synonym "ordenador" is masculine. So it's a property of the word, not what it represents. This creates a rare case when someone use the english "desktop" to refer to the computer, but still inherit the female from "computadora", so it's "la desktop".
Or my favorite, Mano (hand), witch is strong so obviously male. But if it's little hand (manita) then it's not strong so female. Except in some counties were remains male.
Next week in "WTF is wrong with Spanish: ser and estar ("to be" and "to be, but like different")
I don't know what dialect you speak where "Mano" is masculine. In Spain it is feminine, and I've never heard anyone say "el mano". I've also never heard anyone say "el manita".
I don't think "ser" and "estar" being different verbs is at all wrong with spanish. They are very clearly different concepts.
You can be something because it is part of you "I am tall" or you can be something situationally "I am at the library". What is weird to me is that English uses the same verb for those clearly different concepts.
Somehow the ser vs estar distinction almost makes sense. I don't like it but I understand it
Last letter/sound matters. Some -- female, some -- male, some -- neutral (we have 3 grammatical genders in my language)
“matters” but curious where the logic or rules come from and is it harder than expected for folks who cannot hear the sound?
That is a "natural" language. Not C++ or Esperanto. No logic. Just bullshit and idiocy.
Absolutely trivial for anyone. If the word ends with "a", it is female. If any consonant -- male, "o" -- neutral.
interesting. i know there are some linguistics books out there I may look into any about this. appreciated the replies!
Nah pal it's le Nutella. Don't ask me why cause I don't know. The word ending in 'a' isn't a valid argument because you don't drink une Fanta do you? Or do you?
I believe this comment chain is about spanish, not french.
In Spanish the last letter of the word is right most of the time. We do say "una Fanta".
Well it's on a thread about how ridiculous French is
Is the gender of yogurt under debate in Germany? I am only aware of Nutella and butter. Yogurt was always male.
According to Duden, Joghurt may have any gender. I agree with you though that it should be der Joghurt. Edit: It seems like die/das Joghurt is mostly used outside Germany.
What is it with the Austrians always stirring up shit?