this post was submitted on 04 Oct 2025
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I would say that food scarcity in preindustrial countries is not "manufactured" per se, because there isn't an excess of food lying around in those places. You are right that people there starve in part because it isn't profitable to get food to them, but there are other reasons too such as lack of adequate infrastructure to store and transport food and perhaps even lack of trained personnel to distribute it etc.
So really I think for preindustrial countries it's a complex picture that basically boils down to the oppositional philosophy generally held when considering international relations. So in a situation like that I think it isn't accurate to say that scarcity was manufactured in order to justify the existence of capitalism.
Also your statement that it isn't profitable to industrialize other nations and so we don't seems contrary to what I understand, which is that it is often profitable and that is why developed nations are often trying to invest in industrialization efforts (of course taking their unfair piece of the action in doing so). I feel that this principal of investing in industrialization has largely guided the international efforts of China, the USA, and others.