this post was submitted on 19 Jul 2026
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[–] SomeoneSomewhere@lemmy.nz 28 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (5 children)

"It's" is a valid contraction of "it has".

Edit: glossed over the other "it's"... doh.

[–] bitwise@lemmy.ca 64 points 1 day ago (2 children)

"But not many people know how to use it to it's full advantage"

[–] SomeoneSomewhere@lemmy.nz 15 points 1 day ago (1 children)
[–] HeyThisIsntTheYMCA@lemmy.world 3 points 22 hours ago (1 children)
[–] fartographer@lemmy.world 2 points 12 hours ago

You really hit the nail on it's is head

[–] giacomo@lemmy.dbzer0.com 2 points 22 hours ago (3 children)

this is why I hate its vs it's. if "it" was Dave, it would be to Dave's full advantage.

this shit will likely never make sense to me.

[–] SystemDisc@feddit.org 2 points 12 hours ago

If you can replace “it’s” with “it is” or “it has” it needs an apostrophe. If you can’t, because it’s a possessive pronoun showing ownership, there’s no apostrophe.

“It’s a good day.”/“It’s been a good day.”

vs

“Its day was good.”

[–] prole@lemmy.blahaj.zone 2 points 15 hours ago* (last edited 15 hours ago)

You only do "it's" for "it is".

The rest are "its". That simple. You don't do it for possession with "it".

[–] baines@lemmy.cafe 1 points 14 hours ago

because english is a trash language but pedants enjoy gatekeeping too much

[–] blitzen@lemmy.ca 19 points 1 day ago

Sure. Not here, though.

[–] himezero@lemmy.world 12 points 1 day ago

Other it’s. Some would say people don’t know how to use “it” to its fullest advantage.

[–] psud@aussie.zone 1 points 22 hours ago (1 children)

I think he's settled on just always using an apostrophe, and isn't really a copy writer

[–] gramie@lemmy.ca 1 points 16 hours ago (1 children)

As noted grammarian Dave Barry notably said, the purpose of an apostrophe is to alert the reader: "look out, an 's' is coming!"

[–] schipelblorp@sh.itjust.works 1 points 11 hours ago
[–] Axolotl_cpp@feddit.it 3 points 1 day ago (1 children)

"It has helped me..." doesn't sound quite correct to me but i am not a native speaker so i may be wrong

[–] tacosanonymous@mander.xyz 8 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (2 children)

English speakers use has/have/had to signify perfect tenses, meaning the actions are completed but have effects that continue.

So past perfect: It had helped me. Present perfect: it has helped me.

[–] Axolotl_cpp@feddit.it 1 points 21 hours ago
[–] OfCourseNot@fedia.io 3 points 1 day ago (1 children)

No. 'Has helped' is the present perfect.