this post was submitted on 19 Jul 2026
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"It's" is a valid contraction of "it has".
Edit: glossed over the other "it's"... doh.
Missed that one...
It's nice to see them all
You really hit the nail on it's is head
this is why I hate its vs it's. if "it" was Dave, it would be to Dave's full advantage.
this shit will likely never make sense to me.
If you can replace “it’s” with “it is” or “it has” it needs an apostrophe. If you can’t, because it’s a possessive pronoun showing ownership, there’s no apostrophe.
“It’s a good day.”/“It’s been a good day.”
vs
“Its day was good.”
You only do "it's" for "it is".
The rest are "its". That simple. You don't do it for possession with "it".
because english is a trash language but pedants enjoy gatekeeping too much
Sure. Not here, though.
Other it’s. Some would say people don’t know how to use “it” to its fullest advantage.
I think he's settled on just always using an apostrophe, and isn't really a copy writer
As noted grammarian Dave Barry notably said, the purpose of an apostrophe is to alert the reader: "look out, an 's' is coming!"
But it isn't!
"It has helped me..." doesn't sound quite correct to me but i am not a native speaker so i may be wrong
English speakers use has/have/had to signify perfect tenses, meaning the actions are completed but have effects that continue.
So past perfect: It had helped me. Present perfect: it has helped me.
Thank you!
No. 'Has helped' is the present perfect.
Whoopsie