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Can you elaborate on what you mean by this, specifically?
I've heard the same assertion you make elsewhere, that there was a treaty by either the pre-constitution federal congress or the modern constitution-and-president government that promised some form of representation in congress. But I can't find any actual citation of when this treaty was actually made.
I'm fairly certain that it wasn't only 100 years ago, since that would be 1926 and that's about the time Congress passed the Indian Citizenship Act of 1924 which granted non-assimilated native Americans formal citizenship. Doing so included them (along with blacks, gays, jews, and other minorities) under the the aegis of general democracy. It would be very weird for Congress to promise a group of newly-declared citizens additional representation when they just did that.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Citizenship_Act
Maybe instead you're alluding to the 1778 treaty of fort pitt, which by all accounts did include an overt offer of recognizing a native state? (Although, if wikipedia's text is accurate, that treaty would have been fatally invalidated when the Lenape joined the revolutionary war on the side of the British).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_of_Fort_Pitt
This is an interesting question with a bit of a complicated answer filled with back-stabbing and duplicity. You are right, it’s not totally correct to simply say it was 100 years ago;
This is one of those things that was never applied to all Indian nations, because it was done individually through each Indian nation. Usually through the removal process. For instance, in my tribe, the Cherokee Nation, the Treaty of New Echota was signed in 1835 and the language regarding whether it meant a voting or non-voting member is still up for debate. Nearly 200 years later this is still an ongoing issue.
The reason people usually say 100 years is because the Indian Wars ended in the 1920s and that’s when the last removal and reservation agreements were signed.