this post was submitted on 17 Dec 2025
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[–] communist@lemmy.frozeninferno.xyz 0 points 1 month ago (1 children)

By this overly simplistic definition you would count infertile cats as non-cats. You also completely lose the ability to differentiate the species of non-sexually reproducing organisms. And then there's the insanity that is hybridization. Is a mule a horse or a donkey? They can occasionally reproduce with either of them.

this is not the point at all... yes it was an overly simplistic way to explain how you're using the fallacy wrong. You still used it wrong.

In just the same way with economic systems. Workers in different societies and periods exercise different levels of control (which is the underlying meaning of ownership) on the means of production, it's not black and white. It can be very roughly defined as (workers control over the state) * (relative assets of state-controlled enterprises) + (relative assets of co-ops or other directly worker-owned enterprises). There is of course a lot more nuances to be discussed, such as the exact distribution of control between different subclasses of workers, or the social hierarchies arising from the structures of control.

no it cannot because it's referring to whether or not the workers control them and on a societal scale this is a binary flip, at some point the workers are more in control than the bourgoeis and at that point it is socialism and at any point before it is not.

[–] balsoft@lemmy.ml 1 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) (1 children)

no it cannot because it’s referring to whether or not the workers control them and on a societal scale this is a binary flip, at some point the workers are more in control than the bourgoeis and at that point it is socialism and at any point before it is not.

Aha, so you do agree that different societies have different levels of control the working class and the bourgeois have over production, but you seem to be convinced that if that "relative level of proletarian control" is below 50% the state is fully capitalist, and otherwise the state is fully socialist. Why do you think this definition is more useful than the obvious one, where we retain the scale instead of quantizing it into a binary form?

This question is especially relevant because you also seem to believe that there currently aren't any "socialist" countries by your definition. By retaining the spectrum, we can then make analytical statements like "China is more socialist than the US".

marxism does not define socialism as “more worker influence than before” but as an actual change in the relations of production. really the decisive question is which class controls surplus and exists and continues itself as a ruling class.

the binary is not 50 percent versus 49 percent. it is whether bourgeois property relations have been superseded.